Max. Marks : 100
(Subject:-Pharmaceutical Science) Time:2 hrs
Q.1 Pharmacovigilance
is used to monitor
a) unauthorized drug
manufacturing b) drug toxicity
c) pharmacokinetics d)
cost of drugs and pharmaceuticals
Q.2 Clonidine is
a) α1 - selective
agonist b) α2- selective agonist
c) α1- selective
antagonist d) α2 -selective antagonist
Q.3 Mala – N contains
a) Ethinyl Estradiol b)
Norethindrone c) D-norgestrel d) Norepinephrine
Q.4 Prolonged use of
steroids may cause
a) hypoglycemia b)
hypotension c) decrease in bone matrix protein d) early healing of wound
Q.5 Anti-inflammatory
action of glucocorticoids is due to blocking of
a) Prostaglandin
synthase b) Thromboxane synthase
c) 15-lipoxygenase d)
Breakdown of phospholid
Q.6 Good Laboratory
Practice (GLP) certification in India is
a) Mandatory for all
pharmaceutical industries b) compulsory for industries which involve in
manufacturing of
biologicals c) compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturing of
non biologicals d)
optional for pharmaceutical industries
Q.7 Good Laboratory
Practice (GLP) certification is issued in India
a) Controller, Weights
and Measures, Government of India b) Bureau of Indian Standards
(BIS), Government of
India c) Department of Science and Technology, Government of India
d) Drug Controller
General of India (DCGI), Government of India
Q.8 Which of the
following is second generation H1 –antihistamine?
a) Cetirizine b)
Cinnarizine c) Pheneramine d) Promethazine
Q.9 Prostaglandins have
effects on variety of tissues in human body. The different prostaglandins may
have different effects. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) PGE2 is
bronchodilator whereas PGF2α is a bronchoconstrictor
b) PGE2 has marked
oxytocic action while PGF2α has tocolytic action
c) PGE1 and PGE2
inhibit platelet aggregation, whereas TXA2 aggregation
d) Human arteriolar
smooth muscle is relaxed by PGE2 and PGi2 whereas TXA2 and PGF2α
cause vasoconstriction
Q.10 Which one of the
statement is true regarding NSAID’s ?
a) They cause release
of histamine b) They cause relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
c) They indirectly
increase leukotriene production d) They cause airway irritation
Q.11 Which of the following
statement is not correct?
a) Rate of killing of
bacteria by antibiotics follow the first order kinetics b)The bactericidal
effects of penicillin
depends upon its attained Cmax c) The antibiotics having time
dependent bactericidal
effects are given in large dose rather than multiple daily doses
d) Aminoglycosides
produce bactericidal effect in a concentration dependent manner
Q.12Which of the
following statement is not correct combination of drug &its important
adverse
effect?
a) Rifampicin : hepatotoxicity
b) Isoniazid : peripheral neuropathy
c) Ethambutol :
increased uric acid d) Streptomycin : ototoxicity
Q.13 Chemotherapeutic
agent, who does not inhibit the microtubules formation, is
a) Paclitaxel b)
Colchicine c) Vincristine d) Vinblastine
Q.14 Following
antibiotics have been correctly paired to their mechanism of action, except :
a) Vancomycin –
inhibits synthesis of phospholipids and peptidoglycan polymerization
b) Tetracycline – binds
to bacterial 30s ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
c) Erythromycin – binds
to bacterial 70s ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
d) Ciprofloxacin –
interferes with the action of bacterial topoisomerase II
Q.15 The
pharmacokinetic ‘half life’ of which one of the following resembles to its
pharmacodynamics ‘half
life’
a) Morphine b)
Terfenadine c) Isoprenaline d) Suxamethonium
Q.16 The following
properties of a drug encourage its accumulation in breast milk, except :
a) high lipid
solubility b) unionized state c) low molecular weight d) weak acid
Q.17 As per Schedule
‘Y’ of The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, the animal toxicity study
requirement for
marketing of a drug depends upon tentative route and duration of administration
in humans. In this
context which one of the statement is incorrect?
a) Single dose human
use –animal toxicity for 2 weeks in 2 species
b) Oral use for 2 weeks
in human -animal toxicity for 4 weeks in 2 species
c) Aerosol use by
repeated use in humans -animal toxicity in 2 species for 24 weeks
d) Multiple daily
ocular application for short duration – irrigation test in one species for 3
weeks
Q.18 In one of the
clinical trials of vaccine, there were six deaths reported by media. You have
been deputed by
authority to investigate the causality of incidence. Inspection of the
following
documents will be
helpful except :
a) Source data b)
Standard operating procedures
c) Data safety
monitoring records d) informed consent forms
Q.19 Which one among
the following is an antimalarial drug having a metabolite with triazine
moiety?
a) Quinine b) Proguanil
c) Pyramethamine d) Primaquine
Q.20 Which one among
the following is an antitubercular drug with hydrazine moiety?
a) Ethionamide b)
Isoniazid c) Pyrazinamide d) Thioacetazone
Q.21 Codeine differs
from Morphine structurally in
a) Methylation of
phenolic hydroxyl group b) Methylation of alcoholic group
c) Methylation of
Nitrogen group d) oxidation of phenolic hydroxyl group
Q.22 Tropane system is
fusion of
a) Pyrrolidine &
Piperidine b) Pyrrolidine & Pyrimidine
c) Pyrrole&Pyrazine
d) Thiophene& Piperidine
Q.23 The local
anesthetic exert their action by blocking one of the following types of
ionchannels:
a) Ligand gated sodium
channel b) Voltage gated sodium channel
c) Ligand gated calium
channel d) Voltage gated calcium channel
Q.24 Which of the
following statements with regard to the SAARC Summit held in Bhutan in
April, 2010 is not
correct?
a) The Summit was held
in Bhutan for the first time
b) It was the Silver
Jublee Summit of SAARC
c) The Summit
recommended to declare 2010 – 2020 as the ‘Decade of Intraregional Connectivity
in SAARC’
d) The Summit central
theme was ‘Cross Border Terrorism
Q.25 Which of the
following statements with regard to the Right to Education Act, 2010 is not
correct?
a) All children in 6 –
14 years age group must get free and compulsory education
b) No children shall be
held back, expelled or required to pass a board examination till Class
VIII
c) There must be 25%
reservation for poor children even in private schools.
d) Gram Panchayats and
Municipal Councils are responsible to took into violations of Right
and Education laws.
The next three items are based on the following passage :
The detritus food chain
(DFC) begins with dead organic matter. It is made up of decomposers
which are heterotrophic
organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria. They meet their energy and
nutrient requirements
by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are the saprotrops
which secrete digestive
enzymes to break down the dead and waste matter into simple inorganic
materials, which are
subsequently absorbed by them. DFC may be connected with the grazing
food chain at some
levels – some of the organism of DFC are prey to the grazing food chain
animals. Some animals
like cockroaches, crows etc. are omnivores. These interconnections
create a food web.
Organisms occupy a
place in their natural surroundings according to their feeding relationship
with others. The source
of their nutrition or food dictates its tropic level. Autotrophs belong to
the first trophic level
and in turn feed the next tropic level of herbivores. Primary and secondary
carnivores constitute
the third and forth levels. Only about 10% energy gets transferred from the
lower to the next
higher tropic level which eventually restricts the number of levels in a food
chain.
Q.26 Which trophic
level in the grazing food chain do lions belong to ?
a) Trophic level 1 b)
Trophic level 2 c) Trophic level 3 d) Trophic level 4
Q.27 The number of
trophic levels in grazing food chain is restricted because
a) the higher levels
like to restrict their number to improve availability
b) of loss of availability
of food from consumption in the lower level
c) of an internal
number of organisms in the next higher level
d) of sequential
transfer loss of energy
Q.28 The trophic level
of a given species depends on its
a) functionality b)
strength c) number d) size
Q.29 The President of
India has no power to grant pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of
India where sentence
a) is given by court
martial
b) of death has been
awarded
c) is for offence
relating to a matter to which the executive power to the Union
d) is for an offence
relating to a matter to which the executive power to the State
Q.30 Who among the
following won the Australian Open Tennis Championship (Men’s Singles)
2011?
a) Andy Murray b) Novak
Djokovic c) Rafael Nadal d) Roger Federer
The next there items are based on the following passage :
Before performing an
operation in the hospital, a doctor administers a drug or gas to make the
patient unconscious of
pain. This state of unconsciousness is known as ‘anaesthesia’, from the
Greek word meaning
‘loss of feeling’. The substance causing loss of feeling is called anaesthetic.
The discovery of
anaesthetics in the 19th century was one of the greatest achievements in the
field
of medicine. Before
anaesthetics, operations were done in very rare cases. Patients needing
surgery were given
alcohol or various drugs extracted from plant juices to dull pain. Even then,
operations were always
very painful, and were undertaken only in extreme emergencies. Today ,
with effective
anaesthetics it is possible to produce many hours of pain-free unconsciousness,
and this enables
surgeons to perform complex, life saving operations.
Q.31 Before performing
an operation, how does a doctor lessen the pain of the patient?
a) gives alcohol b)
give a drug or gas to make the patient unconscious
c) gives juice extracts
of plants d) Uses extreme methods to dull the pain
Q.32 Before 19th
century, operations were done in very rare cases because
a) patient could not be
given anything except alcohol to lessen the pain b) there was absence
of one of the greatest
achievements in the field of science and technology c) anaesthetics were
discovered in the 19th
century d) drug extracted from plant juices could not dull pain sufficiently
Q.33 Today surgeons can
perform complex, life-saving operations due to
a) there being
emergency facilities b) the fact that patient can be kept pain free for many
hours with anaesthetics
c) powerful plant extracts are available today d) the fact that
operations are done in
rare cases
Q.34 The Chairman of
the Investigational New drug(IND) Committee in India is
a) Drugs Controller
General of India, Government of India b) Secretary, Development of
Health Research,
Government of India c) Directorate General of Health Sciences, Government
of India d) Secretary,
Department of Biotechnology, Government of India
Q.35 In India, the Drug
Controller General of India (DCGI) can issue an order to ban a drug on
the recommendation of
a) Indian Council of
Medical Research b) Pharmacy council of India
c) Drug Technical
Advisory Board d) National Pharmaceutical Advisory Board
Q.36 Pregnancy test
kits are designed to detect which substance?
a) Leutinizing Hormone
b) Progestrone c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
d) Estrogen
Q.37 Which one among
the following is neither an input nor output device?
a) CD-ROM b) Floppy
Disk c) Hard Disk d) Pen drive
Q.38 Which among the
following is/are the units(s) of RAM?
1. Gigabyte and
Megabyte
2. RPM
3. GBPS and MPBS.
Select the correct answer
using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 1 only d) 3 only
Q.39 If you mix 4 part
of 40% with 1 part of 90% alcohol you will get
a) 45.7% Alcohol b) 40%
Alcohol c) 50% Alcohol d) 57% Alcohol
Q.40 The loading dose
(DL) of drug is usually based on the
a) total body clearance
of the drug b) fraction of drug unchanged in the urine
c) apparent volume of
distribution (VD) and desired drug concentration in plasma
d) area under the
plasma drug concentration verses time curve (AUC)
Q.41 The activity of which
one of the following drugs is dependent on a p-phenyl-Nalkylpiperidine moiety?
a) Phenobarbital b)
Chlorpromazine c) Imipramine d) Meperidine
Q.42 Flurazepam has pKa
of 8.2. what percentage of flurazepam will ionized at a urine pH of
5.2?
a) 0.1% b) 1% c) 99% d)
99.9%
Q.43 Recrudescence of
malaria refers to the
a) re-infection of
patient by mosquito bite b) re-infection by exoerythrocytic hypnozoites
c) incomplete clearance
of sporozoites from blood d) incomplete clearance of schizonts from
blood
Q.44 Which one of the
following drugs should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow
hood?
a) Ampicillin b)
Dopamine c) Cisplatin d) Nitroglycerine
Q.45 Protonation plays
a major role in the biological activity of proton pump inhibitors such as
Omperazole and
Esomeperazole. The protonation takes place on the
a) Aromatic Methyl
chain b) Benzimidazole ring c) Methoxy side chain d) The ring that
has dimethyl groups
Q.46 Assume that for a
digoxin, the therapeutic range is cited as Cavg5.5 = 0.8 – 2 ng/ml. if the
patient is assumed to
have an estimated digoxin t1/2 of 48 hours, how long would you wait to
take a serum digoxin
concentration measurement and when during the dosing interval would
you schedule it?
a) 28 days then 3 – 4
hours after the dose is administered b) 14 days then 6 – 8 hours after
the dose is
administered c) 7 days then 10 – 14 hours after the dose is administered
d) 3 days then 1 – 2
hours after the dose is administered
Q.47 Which drug is used
to prevent embolism in the lungs and also during myocardial
infarction?
a) Human Growth hormone
b) Alteplase c) Epogen (EPO) d) Granulocyte – macrophage
colony stimulating
factor (GM – CSF)
Q.48 Which enzyme is
used by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) to form
deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA) in the host cell?
a) Restriction
endonuclease b) DNA-directed polymerase
c) Reverse
transcriptase only d) both b & c
Q.49 For two drug
products, generic and brand to be considered bioequivalent, the 90%
confidence intervals
about the ratio of the Cmax and AUC values for generic/brand product
must be within
a) 80% - 120% of the
brand product b) 80% - 100% of the brand product
c) 80% - 85% of the
brand product d) 80% - 90% of the brand product
Q.50 The renal
clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of
a) effective renal
blood flow b) active renal secretion c) glomerular filtration rate
d) intrinsic enzyme
activity
Q.51 Which condition
usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
a) Increase in the
particle size of the drug b) Use of the ionized, or salt, form of the drug
c) Decrease surface
area of the drug d) Use of the free acid or free base form of the drug
Q.52 The amount of
nitroglycerine that a transdermal patch delivers within a 24 hour period will
not depend on
a) Occlusive backing on
the patch b) diffusion rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
c) surface area of the
patch d) dissolution rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
Q.53 A very fine
powdered chemical/drug is defined as one that
a) completely passes
through a sieve # 240 b) completely passes through a sieve # 120
c) completely passes
through a sieve # 60 d) completely passes through a sieve # 60 and not
more than 40% through a
sieve # 120
Q.54 Which equation is
used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from
experiments at
accelerated temperature?
a) The Stokes’ equation
b) The Arrhenius equation c) The Michaelis – Menten equation
d) The Hixon – Crowell
equation
Q.55 In 25.0 ml of a
solution for injection, there are 4.0 mg of the drug. If the dose to be
administered to a
patient is 200 μg, what quantity of this solution should be used?
a) 1.25 ml b) 0.125 ml
c) 12 ml d) 1.2 ml
Q.56 The rate of drug
administration that gives the most rapid onset of the pharmacologic effect
is
a) per oral
administration b) intradermal injection c) intravenous injection d)
subcutaneous
injection
Q.57 Dose dumping is a
problem in the formulation of
a) soft gelatin capsule
b) compressed tablets c) hard gelatin capsule d) modified release drug
products
Q.58 The extent of
ionization of weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the
a) Particle size and
surface area of the drug b) Noyes – Whitney equation for the drug
c) polymeric form of
the drug d) pH of the media and pKa of the drug
Q.59 The
characteristics of an active transport include all of the following except:
a) active transport
moves drug molecules against concentration gradient b) active transport
follows Fick’s law of
diffusion c) active transport requires energy d) active transport of
drug molecules may be
saturated at high drug concentration
Q.60 In order to
determine the absolute bioavailability of a drug given as an oral
extendedrelease
tablet The
bioavailability of the drug must be compared to the bioavailability of the
drug from
a) an immediate-release
oral tablet containing the same amount of the active ingredient
b) a reference (brand)
extended-release tablet that is a pharmaceutical equivalent c) a
parenteral solution of
the drug given by IV bolus or IV infusion d) an oral solution of the
drug in the same dose
Q.61 Vanishing cream is
an ointment that may be classified as
a) a water soluble base
b) an oleaginous base c) an absorption base d) an emulsion base
Q.62 Rofecoxib
a) has similar effect
to Diclofenac b) provides protection against ischaemic cardiovascular
events c) is indicated
for long term use in osteoarthritis d) can be given to patients with
active peptic
ulceration
Q.63 Schedule ‘R’ of
Drugs and Cosmetic Act would apply to
a) requirement of
factory premises and hygienic conditions for Ayurvadic (including Siddha)
drugs b) requirement of
factory premises for Unani drugs c) standards for mechanical
contraceptives d)
standards for medical devices
Q.64 An alcoholic
solution contains 57.77% u/v alcohol. The strength will be labelled as
a) over proof b) under
proof c) proof spirit d) proof gallons
Q.65 Probenecid
increases serum levels and prolongs activity of penicillin derivatives by
a) plasma protein
binding b) blocking their glomerular filteration
c) blocking their
tubular secretion d) blocking their reabsorption
Q.66 In the preparation
of calamine lotion, sodium citrate is used as
a) suspending agent b)
solubilizer c) buffering agent d) bacteriostatics
Q.67 Water which is
free from volatile and non-volatile impurities, micro organisms & pyrogens
is called
a) Purified water IP b)
water for injection IP
c) sterile water for
injection IP d) Portable water
Q.68 A new drug has
completed phase – I clinical trial in USA, the pharmaceutical company
wants to do the
multicentric, multinational trial including India. The firm will apply in India
to conduct
a) phase I trial b)
phase II trial c) pre-clinical trial d) pharmacolimetric data trial
Q.69 Match the
following :
1. Schedule V I.
Particulars to be shown in the various records of manufacture of drugs
2. Schedule T II. List
of drugs which can be marketed under generic name only
3. Schedule U III. Life
period of drugs
4. Schedule W IV.
Standards of patent and proprietary medicines
5. Schedule P V.
Requirement of factory premises and conditions for Ayurvedic &
Unani Drugs
Which is the correct
match?
a) 1 – I, 2 – III, 3 –
IV, 4 – V, 5 – II b) 1 – V, 2 – IV, 3 – I, 4 – II, 5 – III
c) 1 – IV, 2 – V, 3 –
I, 4 – II, 5 – III d) 1 – IV, 2 – V, 3 – II, 4 – I, 5 – III
Q.70 0.9% w/v sodium
chloride has a freezing point depression of
a) -0.500 C b) -0.520 C
c) -0.560 C d) -0.580 C
Q.71 Subcoating is
given to the tablets to
a) prevent dissolution
in acidic medium b) round the edges and build up the tablet size
c) prevent moisture
penetration into the tablet d) avoid deteriotation due to microbial attack
Q.72 Which one among
the following is observed in first order kinetic?
a) Clearance is
constant b) dose dependent elimination occurs
c) Rate of elimination
decreases with increase in plasma concentration
d) Rate of elimination
does not depend on plasma concentration of drug
Q.73 Which one among
the following drugs is not metabolized by liver
a) Phenytoin b)
Erythromycin c) Penicillin – G d) Cefotaxime
Q.74 Which one among
the following drugs is not an oral third generation cephalosporin ?
a) Cefditoren b)
Cefdinir c) Cefclor d) Ceftibuten
Q.75 Which one among
the following statements regarding Placebo is correct?
a) Placebo does not
produce any effect b) Placebo is dummy medication c) All patient
respond to Placebo d)
Placebo is the inert material added to drug for making tablets
Q.76 The carboxyl group
aspirin after esterification with N-acetyl-P-aminophenol gives
a)
3-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate b) 4-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate
c) O-(2-hydroxybenzoyl)
salicylic acid d) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate
Q.77 A rescription
order calls for 500 ml 2.0% aminosyn, but the pharmacy has 8.0% solution in
stock. How much of
aminosyn 8.0% is required to prepare 500 ml of above solution?
a) 120 ml b) 147 ml c)
125 ml d) 250 ml
Q.78 Which of the
following is/are the symptoms of venous thrombosis?
1. Oedema
2. Lower leg becoming
bluish in colour
3. Dry skin
Select the correct
answer using code given below :
a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and
2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
Q.79 Interferon beta
1. Can be administered
orally .
2. May cause myalgia
and fever.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and
2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
Q.80 Which of the
following is/are the side effects associated with testosterone?
1. Headache.
2. Hirsuitism.
3. Gynaecomastia.
Select the correct
answer using the code given below :
a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and
2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
Q.81 Rosiglitazone
1. should be used with
caution in patients with cardiovascular disease.
2. should not be used
with gliclazide.
3. is a biguanide.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and
2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
Q.82 Iron salt s
1. should always be
taken on empty stomach.
2. should be given by
mouth unless there are good reasons for using another route.
3. in the form of
ferric salts are better absorbed than ferrous salts.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and
2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
Q.83 Doxycycline
1. is bacteriostatic.
2. is broad spectrum
antibacterial drug.
3. may be administered
in renal impairment.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and
2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
Q.84 Testosterone may
be used
1. to treat breast and
endometrial cancer in females.
2. to treat
hypogonadism in males.
3. to suppress
postpartum breast enlargement.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and
2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only
Q.85 Following adverse
effects are rightly paired with a causative anti-malarial drug except :
a) Lichenoid skin
eruption : Chloroquine b) Steven-Johnson syndrome : Quinine
c) Hallucinations :
Mefloquine d) Prolongation of QTc : Halofantrine
Q.86 A single dose
four-way cross over, fasting, comparative bioavailability study was
performed in 24 healthy
adult male subjects. Plasma drug concentrations were obtained for each
subject and following
results were obtained?
Product Dose (mg) Cmax(μg/ml) Tmax (hr) AUC0→∞ (μghr/ml)
IV injection
100
1714
Oral emulsion
200
21.3 1.2 3143
Capsule 200 17.0 2.1 2822
Reference Tablet 200 16.5 1.9 2715
The relative
bioavailability of the drug from the capsule compared to reference tablet is
a) 82.3% b) 91.7% c)
96.2% d) 103.9%
Q.87 How many grams of
aspirin should be used to prepare 1.250 kg of the given powder?
Powder formula :
ASA 6 parts
Phenacetin 3 parts
Caffeine 1 parts
a) 125 b) 750 c) 186 d)
366
Q.88 Which technique is
typically used to mill Camphor?
a) Levigation b)
Pulverization by intervention c) Geometric dilution d) Attriction
Q.89 Content uniformity
test for tablets is used to ensure which quality?
a) Bioequivalency b)
Potency c) Purity d) Toxicity
Q.90 The route of drug
administration that provides complete (100%) bioavailability is
a) intramuscular
injection b) intravenous injection c) intradermal injection d) subcutaneous
injection
Q.91 The rate of drug
bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as
a) controlled-release
product b) hard gelatin capsule c) solution d) compressed tablet
Q.92 The sedimentation
of particles in a suspension can be minimized by which of the
following?
1. Adding Sodium
Benzoate.
2. Increasing the
viscosity of the suspension.
3. reducing the
particle size of the active ingredient.
4. Adding a suspending
agent
Select the correct
answer using the code given below :
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2, 3
and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 2 and 4 only
Q.93 Which one among
the following statements is not correct?
a) Vaccines stimulate
active immunity b) Vaccines are used for long term prophylaxis
c) Patient receives
antibodies in active immunization d) Patient produces antibodies in active
immunization
Q.94 Which one of
following is not correct?
a) Vaccines are antigen
containing preparations b) Toxoids are bacterial toxins modified to
destroy or reduce their
toxicity to a safe level c) Antibodies containing preparations are
known as antisera d)
Vaccines are used for passive immunization
Q.95 Class 100 clean
room is defined as a room in which the particle count in the is
a) not more than 100
per cubic foot of 0.5 μm and larger in size b) not more than 120 per
cubic foot of 0.5 μm
and larger in size c) not less than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 μm
and larger in size d)
not more than 99 per cubic foot of 0.3 μm and larger in size
Q.96 Which one of
following is not used as enteric coating material?
a) Cellulose acetate
phthalate b) Pectin c) Acrylate polymers d) Polyvinyl acetate phthalate
Q.97 Which one of
following is cannot be used for buffering of injections?
a) Phosphate buffer b)
Citrate buffers c) Borate buffers d) Acetate buffer
Q.98 Which one of
following chemical/pharmaceuticals classes of agents is incorrectly matched
with its acid/base
nature
a)Adrenergic α2
-agonist :basic b) Prostaglandins : acidic
c) 4-Quinolines :basic
d)Meglitinides : acidic
Q.99 Which one of
following acid has the highest degree of ionization in an aqueous solution?
a) Aspirin (pKa =3.5)
b) Indomethacin (pKa = 4.5)
c) Ibuprofen (pKa =5.2)
d) Phenobarbital (pKa = 7.4)
Q.100 All of following
statements about first order degradation are true, except:
a) its rate is
dependent on the concentration b) its half life is changing parameter c) a plot
of
the log of
concentration versus time yields a straight line d) its t90% is independent if
the
concentration
Answer Key (DCO-2011)
1.b 2.b 3.b 4.c 5.d 6.b
7.c 8.a 9.c 10.c 11.c 12.c 13.a 14.c 15.d 16.d 17.d 18.d 19.b 20.b 21.a 22.a
23.b 24.d 25.c 26.c 27.d 28.a 29.d 30.b 31.b 32.c 33.b 34.a 35.c 36.c 37.c 38.c
39.c 40.c 41.d 42.a 43.d 44.a 45.b 46.d 47.b 48.c 49.a 50.c 51.b 52.d 53.b 54.b
55.a 56.c 57.d 58.d 59.d 60.c 61.d 62.c 63.c 64.a 65.c 66.c 67.c 68.b 69.c 70.b
71.b 72.a 73.b 74.c 75.b 76.b 77.c 78.b 79.a 80.a 81.b 82.b 83.a 84.c 85.b 86.d
87.b 88.b 89.b 90.b 91.c 92.b 93.c 94.d 95.a 96.b 97.c 98.a 99.a 100.d
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